I had asked this question during free for all Friday and got no response but it still interests me.
You might need to phrase your question better; it is a bit confusing in its present form.
If you mean, did Indians have the notion of an "India" before Mughals/Europeans arrived, the answer is yes. Of course, it was not called India, but Bharata, Aryavarta, Jambudweepa, or some other names. The territory matched the Indian subcontinent, starting from northern Afghanistan, and covering modern India.
Buddhist and Jain sources list 16 Mahajanapads, or great kingdoms of India in around 600 BC. While the kingdoms change depending on the source you look at, the area they represent is the Indian subcontinent.
Hindu epic Mahabharata all the kingdoms of Bharata going to war. Again, kingdoms of the subcontinent. Ramayana, the epic especially covers major kingdoms of the subcontinent (Sri Lanka to Taxila).
Chandragupta Maurya of the Mauryan Empire conquered all areas that Indians considered India. No other empire in the subcontinent ever controlled the same area until British colonialism (they missed Tibet though).
If you have a doubt of the existence of an "India" because there was no gigantic empire sitting all through history, just look at ancient Greece. They were several city states, not united, but they had a very clear idea of what "Greece" was. The same is true for Indians through history.