The British would dominate the seas during the French Revolution only a couple decades later (I'm looking at you, Lord Nelson), and as far as I'm aware, they did pretty good against the French during the Seven Years War as well. So, why were they for the most part (or at least when it counted) unable to defeat admirals like d'Estaing and de Grasse?
I must admit, this is the first time this subreddit has disappointed me, no less with what I perceive to be the simplest question I've put forward here