Wikipedia reads: By the 13th century, Moorish invaders had introduced the fruit to Europe

I don't think this is right, but I'd like some further input from other experts before I propose an amendment to the page. I don't believe this is correct because in Andrew Dalby's book Tastes of Byzantium, one of the sections of an old Byzantine manual titled On Fruits (taken from De Alimentis, c. AD 670) reads:

"Watermelons are not as moist or as productive of bad humours as other melons, and are not so diuretic, or so effective as emetics. Although not as good to eat as other fruits, they are better to eat than melons."

So, the question I have is: did the watermelon exist in the Roman or Byzantine Empires? Based on the previous primary source, it seems to have. But I can't seem to find any other sources mentioning watermelons specifically. Melons are certainly described for banquets, etc.

Anyways, I find it very hard to believe that Europe didn't have access to this fruit before AD 1200. From experience, (notably, with the Wikipedia fork incident) that the statement is simply more "dark ages" crap, attributing all exotic goods and new technologies of the European Middle Ages to the oh-so-advanced Moors/Caliphate, but I'll wait for others' judgments before I say any more.