Is it not possible that this has merely been mistranslated and misinterpreted over the years?
I can't find a single ancient version, translation, or lexicon that suggests it is a mistranslation. Is it possible? Yes. Is it remotely likely? No, not without conspiracy-level falsification of lexical data across the ancient world.
Not that this is definitive proof but the original Hebrew word for foreskin, used in the verse, is Orlah. See here for multiple other uses of the same word all seeming to mean foreskin.