Historians, why was "The East" (China, India, Arabia, et.al.) so technologically and scientifically superior to Europe through much of history but increasingly stagnant/regressive during the end of the Renaissance, Scientific Revolution, and Enlightenment periods? [X-post from /r/AskReddit]

by [deleted]

I have always wondered why the early advances of China, India, and the Arab world in mathematics, chemistry, and astronomy were vibrant before Europe really took notice and seemed to suddenly atrophy just as the Europeans started to develop them and ultimately take the lead.

My premise may be flawed, if so, I hope my larger point is worthy of discussion. Where did the scientific momentum go?

[deleted]

Realistically I was looking for perspective on the causes of "The Great Divergence".

Is anyone familiar with it?