Is there a historical reason that other cultures and societies seem to respond to tragedies with more violence and backlash towards their governments than Western Nations?

by skippyjiffy

For instance, following the mining disaster in Turkey there appears to have been a massive backlash with violent protests. In Greece, there were violent protests that have extended longs periods of time. There are lots of examples of this in recent memory however it seems as though the United States has been exempt from much of this unrest. Is there a historical foundation to these issues today? What modern factors contribute to this? Is it simply a bias on my part?

abatabat

I'm not sure if the question's premise is true. Many cities in the US such as LA and Detroit have experienced riots. I'm not sure the US is that different from other countries.