Alright, this will be hard to articulate but I will do my best. I was once told (I can't remember where) that Persia invaded Greece for a couple of reasons, the first and foremost being Athen's support of the Ionian Revolt but also because years before, Athens had been effectively occupied by Spartans after it's removal of the king and signed themselves over to Persia. Basically, the Spartans helped the Athenians with the expulsion and then decided to stick around in the city. So the Athenians then enlisted the aid of Persia to expel the Spartans. This led them into an agreement where the Athenians unknowingly brought themselves into the Persian fold. Of course the Athenians didn't acknowledge that, thus leading to the second catalyst. Is any of this true, or am I completely backwards? If you would be so kind as to help clear up any misconceptions you see, it would be greatly appreciated. I have hardly any knowledge about Ancient Greece and is like to improve it.