For example, how did the pilgrims first make contact with the native Americans? Or Western merchants with Eastern countries? If they had no shared language, why weren't they killed on sight as potential invaders?
The Carthaginians (Mediterranean civilization ~900BC - 146BC) would sail to far off lands to do trade. Upon arriving they would apparently lay out their wares on the beach for the natives of the land to inspect and return to their ship and keep watch. The natives would then lay out however much compensation they thought was appropriate. Each side would continue to adjust the amount of wares/compensation in their pile until each was satisfied whereupon they would take the other's pile of goods and leave. (Richard Miles, Carthage Must Be Destroyed, 2010).
The evidence we have tells us that foreigners did not kill each other on sight (though it was an option) but would readily opt to trade goods instead.
In accounts like The Journey and Ordeal of Cabeza de Vaca, the narrative of a 1520s-1530s Spanish expedition of North America, explorers often used gestures to convey meaning. De Vaca makes several references to some Indian groups gesturing "menacingly," which usually led to armed conflict.
I am a little out of my comfort zone with this topic, but a former MA colleague who studied Southeastern Indian groups once told me that initial contact throughout that area usually followed a similar pattern.
You may be interested in our FAQ section on Cross-cultural communication and lingua francas.