Winston Churchill is frequently viewed as a hero, specially in America. Nevertheless, before being a historical figure, he (like Hitler and Stalin) was a political figure with a political agenda. Many people, specially holocaust deniers, say that Churchill's political relevance at the time was closely linked to the growing power that financial institutions were starting to have, and that many of his actions during the war were dictated by this relation. Can anybody convince me of this or otherwise?
PS: One of the reasons I am asking this question is that I was arguing with a friend who was trying to convince me that the Holocaust never happened as we are told, and that Churchill, and not Hitler, was the main figure responsible for World War II. While the facts that the Holocaust did happen and that Hitler was a terrible tyrant are very solid in my head, I confess that he changed the way I see Winston Churchill.
Just to clarify: is "the bankers' and financiers' lobbies" Holocaust denier code for "the Jews"?
Churchill? Really?
For most of the 1930's Churchill was in a sort of political "exile". While, yes, he served as a member of Parliament, but he was skipped over for appointment to positions, was virtually shouted off the floor of Parliament during the Abdication Crisis, never held any sort of leadership position within his party, was often found lacking any support at all, and was personally broke due to the Depression.
Addtitionally, when the country lost faith in Chamberlain in early 1940, Churchill was not even the first option for the position of Prime Minister; Lord Halifax was. And even upon his selection for the position it was a widely unpopular decision.
A man who was relatively powerless, and played no role in any of the negotiations about the Sudetenland Crisis, was roundly ignored on urging changes in defense spending and general foreign policy, started WWII?
Perhaps you could explain why you think Churchill was responsible for WWII.