Why don't scholars typically refer to slavery in the americas as genocide?

by askthehistoryfolks

Especially US historians! Thanks in advance, guys!

edit: oh, and the native americans too? Thanks again.

Medibee

noun
the deliberate and systematic extermination of a national, racial, political, or cultural group.

Going off this definition slavery in the Americas doesn't fall under genocide.

[deleted]

I don't want to hijack OP's thread, but most of the little I know about West Africa is from 20th century fiction, especially by the fantastic Chinua Achebe.

As an enslaved person in West Africa, were my songs and traditions banned by my captors? In US schools, we're taught that, in the New World, slaveowners actively did this.

As an enslaved person in West Africa, if European slavers decided not to buy me (for whatever reason) what would happen to me?

Are the West African powers which initially provided captive Africans to slavers in the New World held as responsible as the slavers themselves? Did this level of responsibility change as the scope of the slave trade accelerated?

Was there a turning point when it became more profitable for Europeans to engage in slave raids into West Africa, rather than securing slaves through an established West African state?

Those West African states with economies directly tied to slave export -- do we see the fates of those states to be directly tied to the fates of a profitable Atlantic slave trade?

Cases where Africans were imported to replace dwindling enslaved natives (for example, due to what I've been told is a differential susceptibility to disease): are these considered genocide-related?

Lastly, and this is what the OP reminded me of, is it common to refer to the source of the Atlantic slave trade as the 'African Holocaust'?