When and how did England progress from an absolute monarchy to a constitutional monarchy?

by NOTPUTIN6
OldManDubya

I'm not an expert but I wonder sometimes if the question could be put another way.

The development of the British state after 1700 aside; might it be better to ask - why wasn't the English monarchy as successful at centralising power in the King as other European states were?

This I mean in the sense that - if you had looked at Tudor England, surely it would seem that England was heading towards a stronger monarchy. In contrast, French kings I think, were not always as powerful as they are now remembered to be; indeed could the same point could perhaps be made about Spain?

Is it [perhaps the case that at some point, the same trends towards absolutism experienced by other European countries were more successfully resisted in England?

Searocksandtrees

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