I know that cilantro (coriander) has been traded and cultivated by humans for culinary use in regions in which it is not native for centuries (probably millenia). I am one of those unfortunate cooking souls with an apparently genetic distaste for cilantro (try as a might to enjoy it) and have been wondering how long this phenomenon of cilantro-based repulsion in humans has been known to occur. Is this question better suited for food specialists/nutritionists?
Interestingly enough, Coriander was used in the production of perfumes in the ancient East. It was cultivated in Mesopotamia and Egypt as far back as 5,000 BC, and was used later on in the production of perfumes. (The oldest record of Coriander is in a Sanskrit text from over 7,000 years ago.) At this time, spices were commonly used in lieu of flowers. The ancient Greeks utilized the seeds as a spice and the leaves as herbs (this was read on a Linear B tablet recovered near Pylos).
The Ancient Egyptians used Coriander for medicinal purposes and occasionally in cooking. They believed it to be an aphrodisiac, meaning that it could be used to stir up sexual desire. The Egyptians also believed that Coriander could be utilized as food in the underworld. As such, remnants of Coriander plants have been discovered in tombs, most notably in that of Tutankhamen.
The Ancient Hebrews also had knowledge of the spice. It is mentioned in Exodus 16:31, which states that manna is similar to the seeds of Coriander. In fact, the oldest archaeological find of the spice was at a Hebrew tomb site (Nahal Hemel Cave, Neolithic B Site).
Unfortunately, I haven't been able to find any primary sources, but I have plenty of secondary sources:
http://www.herbinfosite.com/?page_id=324
http://www.fragrantica.com/news/Coriander-Herb-and-Spice-2256.html
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Coriander
http://annemcintyre.com/articles/coriander/ (This goes into greater detail as to ancient customs and beliefs surrounding Coriander)