Did 17th century European nation-states really deliberately limit their own power over other states as Foucault asserts in "Birth of Biopolitics"?

by radkat

In the beginning of "Birth of Biopolitics", Foucault asserts that 17th century states operating under the logic of "Raison d'etat" intentionally avoided attempting to dominate other states to establish imperial control over all of Europe. I had always been under the impression that the lack of hegemony by one state in Europe during this time was more a result of Britain intentionally acting as a balancer in wars to prevent an overwhelming victory on either side.

agentdcf

I don't happen to have my copy to hand, can you elaborate on what he says there?