Did the term "Middle Ages" (separating the speakers from the "golden age" of Ancient Greece and Rome) exist in, say, the 16-18th century? Or would it be called the "Dark Ages", or something else entirely? Examples from any language are welcome!
Well, Petrarch introduced the idea of the "Dark Ages" in the mid-14th century. Later Renaissance humanists, Bruni being a good example, took up his ideas, and adopted a three tier understanding of history - the glory that was Greece (and Rome), modern times, and the dark middle age between the two. So the term "Middle Ages" (or at least media tempestas) was in circulation during the 15th century, and really took off in popularity with the advent of the Reformation.
A similar question came up over the weekend. [Some of this thread addresses some your question] (http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/2ak8pv/is_the_term_middle_ages_contested_or_discussed/).