I'm just wondering. Some people still hold on to the notion that the "dark ages" were a dark period of scientific regression. That the church suppressed science, that not one scientific achievement was made since the Renaissance and that there were stupid people everywhere. What do you guys think?
There's plenty of room for you to ask and get answers to specific questions, but in the meantime there's been a very large number of questions along this line asked and answered. These have been given a very generous section in the FAQ here.
In particular this thread may be the most relevant to your question
Centuries of Europeans had a hard-on for Ancient Rome and Greece, and tended to, at least until the Enlightenment, hold up Antiquity as the perfect model of emulation. The Dark Ages immediately followed the sack of Rome, and therefore it might be perceived as an era of lost or even backward social and economic progress.
This is not entirely true. Important scientific research was conducted during the period (including dissections), and was not as stifled by the Catholic Church as one might suspect. The late Dark Ages included the birth of universities and the Carolingian Renaissance, two important developments that seem to contradict our (largely inaccurate) view of the period.