I know it's an oddly specific question, but the reason I'm asking is that I would hardly see a farmer's family being able to buy a slave. Knowing that the Neo-Babylonians used to move populations a lot and enslave people for field labor, did they distribute them around for free or were there farming "corporations" who were able to buy these slaves for their own agricultural needs ? I'm writing a story about this time period and research is a bit difficult.
They could be brought. The thing is, a lot of scholarly literature uses the term "family" to refer to something more akin to a family firm that controls fairly extensive land and labor assets directly or indirectly-probably the two most famous Neo-Babylonian families are the Egibi and Murašu families, which were active for around 3-5 generations. The Murašu firm in general is a good case in point; although it is called a "family" it was active for several generations, spanned both the neo-Babylonian and Achaemenid periods(and contracted with the Achaemenids), and maintained offices both in Nippur(its original base) and the Persian city of Susa. We also know that it was less a family that "Went out and farmed" than a sort of corporation; it both made money by renting out land it leased in exchanged for providing a fixed stipend and rented land and cultivated it directly. A firm like this could afford to own slaves(although its labor force was not exclusively enslaved) and indeed we see documentation of slave ownership by this family and the Egibi family.