Ok, so I'm reading a book called "The history of phisics" by Andrzej Wróblewski and in it he makes a point that (paraphrasing) "Byzantium did not produce a single sholar comperable to that of alexandria". Is this true? Was any signitificant progress made there in terms of mathematics, astronomy etc. ?

He also goes on to say that "science in Europe began it's rebirth from XII century onward, with the estabilishment of first universities and reintruduction of greek text translated from arabic". But i thought those were preserved by the bizantines and italian states?