I'm not even going to touch on the history at question here. Let's just examine this post for a minute.

This is a very long post, with almost no sources for anything. When a book is quoted at length, it begins with

The natural talent of Arabs is the plundering and exploitation of others. Belongings of others inspire them to theft and robbery.

Does that sound scholarly? Here's another quote from the piece:

These barbarians did have the neither the cultural nor other skills to motivate the emergence of a so-called ‘Golden Age’ Everything that during the 400-year occupation of Persian in the Islamic region was performed was produced by Persians without any Islamic drive.

So should we take it as fact that a race of people have "neither the cultural nor other skills" to accomplish anything significant? Do we need no further proof to be convinced that Persians, who weren't Muslims, apparently, accomplished everything?

Tiny bit of history: The author says that all scientists in the Islamic Golden Age were Persians

Nowadays many dubious figures and Islamists refer to sources that describe great Persian scientists such as Ibn Sina, Omar Khayyam, Ferdowsi, Biruni, Razi and many others as Arabs or Turks.

But no mention of Alhazen or al-Jahiz, both from Basra. Or the Moorish scientists like al-Jayyani. And those are just examples I could think of off the top of my head.

The point is, does this post make assertions about the Arabs as a race of people? Could it possibly have a political motivation in ascribing all achievements of the Islamic Golden Age to Persians alone?

This submission has been removed because it is soapboxing, promotion of a political agenda, or moralizing. We don't allow content that does these things because they are detrimental to unbiased and academic discussion of history.