Why did the allied powers let Germany have an army much earlier after WWII and prohibited Japan from having any sort of military until much later?

by Spam4119
BritainOpPlsNerf

Necessity!

The Great enemy in the West was immediately replaced; Communism was on the rise and arguments can be made that the Western Allies had decisively lost the race for Europe, many traditionally pro-Western nations, such as Poland, were now essentially Soviet Satellites.

The chance of a Soviet invasion, in contrast, of Hokkaido (Japan's northernmost Island) was slim to none, but was on the minds of the occupying Allies.

Finally, in terms of Officers; the shattered remnants of the Wehrmacht had many 'denazified' Generals who could be trusted to help reform an effective and defense-capable German Bundeswehr, and many men who served in the Wehrmacht found successful careers in the newly-formed Bundeswehr.

In short, what the Soviets wanted/were perceived to want, was in Europe, not the Pacific.