When England paid the national debt of Scotland at the time of the original union, was it conditional on that union staying together?

by pig9

As the vote for Scottish independence is close, I was wanting to get a better historical aspect on the situation. I understand that this subreddit is not about recent events and am not looking for a discussion on the current situation, rather the conditions of the original union.

Thecna2

There was no provision in the Act of Union linking the two. Primarily because Scotlands national wasnt paid as such, and many Scots were still affected by it.

http://www.scotshistoryonline.co.uk/union.html

However Article 15 DID provide for a sum to be paid to compensate Scotland for taking on their part of Englands National Debt, and this was used in part to mitigate the losses and wind up the company. This amount is called The Equivalence and amounted to 398,000GBP.

Brotherbear561

Its a bit of a misconception that Scotland's debts were paid. The Kingdom of Scotland in 1707 had zero national debt. The Darien Scheme was an entirely privately funded adventure. The Equivalence was not paid to the government of Scotland to settle their debts. It was as much a bribe to the Nobles and Merchants who had lost a lot of money in Darien As a payment for Scotland to take on Some of Englands debt..