How did tea trade with China influence colonization?

by Hurinfan

I saw this post on /r/4chan. How much is it true, how much is bullshit, how much is embellishment.

http://i.imgur.com/ATmdjYk.png

slawkenbergius

I'm sure others will chime in with more thoughtful replies, but the three things that immediately jumped out at me were:

  1. Sugar plantations in the Americas significantly predate the mass popularity of tea drinking. The principal value of sugar planting was in creating molasses, from which rum was then manufactured.

  2. By the time the Opium Wars took place, the trans-Atlantic slave trade had been abolished in British territories for decades.

  3. The First Opium War was only a big deal historically in the sense that it opened up China to Western penetration on Western terms. As a war, it was utterly insignificant (and China had much bigger problems in the 19th century, like the Taiping Rebellion). The Second Opium War, while it had economic components, was not really about tea in the sense that it wouldn't have happened without the tea trade. It started by accident and escalated because European powers saw an opportunity to take advantage of Qing weakness.