Why didn't Japan steamroll China in 1937-1942 the way it steamrolled the rest of Asia?

by IAMARobotBeepBoop
jminuse

China had been modernizing for some time under Chiang Kai-shek, and was no pushover even for Japan. In the first major battle, the battle of Shanghai, the Chinese army outnumbered the Japanese over 3:1 and, although ultimately defeated, killed 25% of the Japanese forces engaged. This Pyrrhic victory alarmed the Japanese and caused them to be much more cautious thereafter. Ironically, the Chinese lost most of their top units, and the Japanese might have succeeded if they had pressed ahead quickly. But Japanese propaganda had long said that the conquest of China would be easy, and when they found out this was false, they slowed down dramatically. The delay allowed China to utilize its huge landmass, moving war industries away from the coast and out of reach. If Japan ever had the ability to "steamroll" China, they lost it when it became a matter of marching hundreds of miles to reach their targets.