This sounds like a strange question, so here's some context:
I took a course on the history of the Roman Empire during my undergrad, and my prof said that a newer, alternate translation for Caesar's last words was very roughly equivalent to "[Generic swear word]" followed by calling his murderers something equivalent to "You mentally disabled/stupid children!"
My memory of this is pretty sketchy, since this was a couple years ago, and I think she emphasized the roughness of the translation to English, and that this was merely a new idea, not a wide-accepted theory.
On the one hand, it makes more sense as the last words of someone suffering a violent death, but on the other hand I'm suspicious of my memory on this one.
Note: Deleted the original thread and reposted without offensive language in the title. Sorry for breaking the rules!
Suetonius writes that Caesar died with a voiceless sigh but that some claim he said καὶ σὺ τέκνον; to the approaching Brutus (Iul 82).
The question mark (";") is certainly the editor's work here but even disregarding that there are only so many ways you can reasonably interpret "and you child" ("you, too, my son?", "you, too [childish] child?", "you, too, [shall die] child!", ...). I can't see how your professor would arrive at "mentally disabled children".
Is it really necessary to censor language here? Especially in a (potentially) direct quote?
I figured this was one of the most mature subs where people where least likely to get offended over a simple expletive.