If a European gentleman of "high" class from the 19th century raped a woman of "lower"class, would he receive as stiff of punishment as a gentleman who raped a woman of "high" status? What if it was a "lower" class man raping a "higher" class woman?

"European" covers a lot of ground. I'll restrict my answer to the UK. Class was a double-edged sword in 19th century rape cases. "Respectability" was a major consideration in adjudicating rape complaints, and was highly correlated with class; in other words, middle/upper class men who raped lower-class women were very likely not to be convicted, if they were even brought to trial, because they were thought to be "too respectable" to have committed such an offense. The women, by contrast, were often presumed to be lying because they were not "respectable." (Source: Carolyn Conley, "Rape and Justice in Victorian England).

On the other hand, when upper/middle class men were convicted of raping lower class women and particularly domestic servants, it was doubly scandalous and therefore could be more harshly punished than usual.