Why did Arabization happen but not, say, Mongolization?

by Pedobears_Lawyer
Janbiya

The Arabic language spread to the point it has over the course of well over a millennium of prestige language status.

There were quite a few cases of both linguistic and cultural "Mongolization" during the greatest extent of the Mongol conquests, although for the most part it was the assimilation of linguistically similar tribes with similarly nomadic backgrounds. None of the largest khaganates managed to survive 200 years, so the trend never had the opportunity to gain momentum the way Arabization did. Assimilation of Central Asian soldiers into sedentary populations was more common, especially after the first couple generations.

flowerboy98

When the Arabs conquered much of northern Africa and western Asia, they spread with them their own language and religion. The Mongols, however, were very "laid back" rulers compared to other conquering nations such as the Romans or the Arabs. All they really required of their subjects was a tax every once in a while. The mongol government also fell apart quicker than the Islamic empire because of a number of succession crises, which fragmented their territories.