A friend and I were having this discussion of the probability that an average citizen of medieval Europe would have met a person of different race. He claims that it would be very common, as land trade routes from China and Egypt were very common. However, in my (rather shocking) defense, I talked about the "Human Museum" in Belgium in the 1800s which had Black People, suggesting that it was still rare for them to have seen one personally. To make it slightly more specific, let's consider the 1400s, and France/ HRE in our sample. Which of us would be right?
hi! there have been loads of questions about this; take a spin through these previous posts for some ideas