I'm currently doing a research on secular causes and motivations behind the Crusades, and heard once of this theory. Sadly I can't find any reliable source to support this, so I wonder if there is any truth in that statement.
I'll recommend that you take your subject down to one crusade in particular, as the causes behind each of them over centuries are much, much different. The question of channelling violence is usually discussed principally as a reason for the first crusade, and is mostly derived from ecclesiastical sources like sermons from the period:
If you are writing on the first crusade you cannot realistically start without familiarizing yourself with:
He's pretty much the most important living scholar in crusade studies, and this book will familiarize you with the historiographic debates on origins of / reasons for crusading and source materials used in the debates.