There may be a connection, but I do not have an answer in that category. For historians questions like these can be difficult to answer with a great deal of certainty - or any. Of course in Japan the transition from Tokugawa shogunate through Meiji restoration into industrialization was rapid. I think it's fair to say Western Europe had a relatively slower transition from feudalism to industrialism.

Here are my points though: it can be very difficult to trace causality between these two very large ideas and structures. There are so many other contributing factors, it would be unfair and nearly unarguable in many cases to make claims between such large structures. Secondly, in tracing causality, the measurable effects reduce significantly as time grows between events. To use a trite metaphor - does a butterfly flapping its wings in China cause a hurricane in Florida? So maybe there's a better case for feudal shogunism having a direct effect on rapid industrialization because of time between, but in my limited knowledge this seems like a very broad question.

If you're interested in historiography and the way historians study history, check out John Gaddis's The Landscape of History, I'm drawing heavily from that!