In Robin Fleming's Britain After Rome, she says that the people of Dublin, York, and Northumbria preferred the Anglo-Saxon overlordship to that of the Norse. Why? What were the Norse doing that made the Anglo-Saxon methods preferable?
I'm specifically talking about the tenth-ish century.
EDIT: Clarity.
First and foremost, by the 10th century, the Anglo-Saxons had been established as overlords in England for almost 500 years. The Scandinavian peoples had been pillaging for more than a hundred years. The decision was pretty easy.
Second, the governments in Ireland and England were not the same. England was under the control of the Anglo-Saxons, Ireland was under the control of the Irish. There were Scandinavian settlements in both places that became semi-autonomous, but they were largely comprised of pillagers who decided they liked the area and decided to stay.
So, to conclude, the Irish and Anglo-Saxon methods were preferred because they had been long-established in their respective areas and the people there identified themselves in those groups (there are sub-groups, of course, but they aren't relevant for this discussion), but more importantly, they weren't killing people and burning down villages on a regular basis like the Vikings.