A bit of an expansion on this; I have a friend who is primarily of Scottish ancestry, and she recently told me that she (or maybe her family, she wasn't specific), was thirty-eighth in line for the Scottish throne. This seemed really weird to me and implausible but I didn't know enough to disagree. I tried to do some research and what I found really just confused me more. If anyone could weigh in on this, I would really appreciate it! Thanks in advance.
Since James VI of Scotland became James I of England, the Scottish and English thrones have been united. This occurred on the death of Elizabeth I in 1603. From that time any claimant to the Scottish throne would be likewise a claimant to the English throne.