I don't think that ancient cultures had anything resembling our current understanding of allergic reactions.

One of the earliest well-documented incidents of what we would today call a food allergy (or at least a sensitivity) may have occurred in May of 1483. According to the account of Thomas Moore (who does have a well known anti-Henry bias), King Richard III ate some fresh strawberries from the garden of Archbishop and then developed a case of hives and swelling around the mouth and lips, as well as on the skin of his arm. According to Moore, Richard accused Lord Hastings of orchestrating a plot to poison him and bewitch him with physical afflictions.

source: http://www.newstatesman.com/ideas/2013/08/was-downfall-richard-iii-caused-strawberry

Generally speaking, a modern understanding of allergies did not develop until well into the 20th century. It is difficult or impossible to know for sure, but it is entirely possible that pre-modern people would interpret a reaction to food allergies as poisoning or witchcraft. How else to explain an unhealthful swelling in with no evident disease or in response to consuming a otherwise-healthful food?