Is it accurate to say that the Nazis and the Jews (via the Central Verein) seem to have had good relations until 1933 when the Zionists convinced the Nazis the Jews should leave Germany?

by [deleted]

Because that's what this redditor says.

Also that "The Jews had long been very acceptable in Germany and there is very little to suggest that this was going to change until Stephen Wise and his quite outrageous trouble-making".

mystical-me

Your proposed question, and the statement by that redditor, couldn't be more false. It could be more anti-Semitic. That redditors assessment of history would be called German Apologism, claiming the Nazis were not the wrongdoers, but their enemies were the wrongdoers. It's related to the famous "Stab in the Back" theory where Jews were ostensibly responsible for the collapse of the German gov't at the close of WW1.

Not only was the relationship between the Far Right, including the Nazis, antagonistic to Jews from their inception, they never ever recoiled from their contempt of Jews and Jewish culture. There was never any attempt at reconciliation or collaboration, and Nazis made life for Jews in Germany (and those who desired to leave Germany), as difficult as possible.

Secondly, to label Jews as "troublemakers" is beyond ridiculous and typical anti-semetic trope, that Jews are responsible for Anti-Semitism and racist behavior. It's cognitive dissonance.