I'm currently studying the law of my own country and beginning to appreciate how significant historical events have molded legal process into the way it operates today. Given that the UK mainland hasn't been occupied by an invading force since 1066, I'm curious to know how German occupation during the Second World War effected the judicial functions of such territories - particularly long-term occupied nations such as France.
What changes occurred to the judicial systems of German-occupied territories? Were judges expected to give effect to Nazi legislation (such as that regarding Jews) and if so, was this carried out in practice? Are there any residual effects of these changes that remain operational?
Thank you in advance for any information!
There were two types of German occupation during WW2, direct and local.
Direct was Germany administrating the area and everything with it the major example of this was Poland, in effect the state ceases to exist and an independent organisation.
The local system was the German's would allow a pro-Nazi/fascist government to lead the country as an independent state though in practise did what the German's wanted.
France is a complicated case, while technically the entire country was under the control of Vichy their control in the north was rather restricted due to the occupation. This combined with France's federal system meant that a lot of interaction happened locally. The general instruction given to local politicians and civil servants was co-operate with the German with dignity and keep things running.
In the case of the Jews the situation is heavily debated but it seems that while the German's did make demands Vichy was reluctant to carry them out. The result appears to be that the rounding up of Jews in France was a ad hock/extra judiciary affair mainly concentrated in the north against refugees. Note I not too sure on this so please feel free to correct.
France: The Dark Years, 1940-19446 by Julian Jackson