Why does historical chronology skip from 1 BC to 1 AD? Why is there no year 0?

by TheChainsawNinja

I suppose zero is somewhat of a more nuanced concept than positive integers. But this system was introduced in, like, 500 AD, I think? Was zero really not all that widespread at this point in time, even to presumably highly educated monks?

EDIT: I guess what I'm really asking is when did zero become a common concept in public conscious, or at least that of the educated public.

Searocksandtrees