Is there any evidence that Europe was more advanced before the collapse of Rome, or is this just a result of romantic revisionism?

by wumao
theebadcrusader

To see how much more advanced we were you should look at how far we declined.

If you are genuinely interested I would recommend the following; The Fall of Rome: And the End of Civilization by Bryan Ward-Perkins. It's an excellent study that put a lot of the "peaceful transition" popular arguments among some modern historians to bed. He uses lots of solid archaeological evidence and research backing up all his arguments.

Some of the things he covers; Declining literacy rates. Reduction in the production of fine pottery. No more tiled roofs and construction in general. I even recall he talks about the shrinking size of working animals indicating worse nutrition. Population decline. There was a section where he measures the decline in industry by analyzing frozen ice core samples (yes Roman industry was significant enough to produce pollution). There is also an analysis of climate using dendrochronology.

I strongly, STRONGLY recommend this book as a former Ancient History Postgrad and ex History Teacher.

[edited for clarity]

GothicEmperor

Advanced in what way? Can you quantify it, maybe?