I asked this question in /r/explainitlikeimfive, but I'd like to inquire a more credible subreddit.

It seems that drinking wine and beer was extremely common compared to drinking water (the information I'm operating under), however there doesn't seem to be any indication of exceptionally high rates of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome. Is it possible this was because infant mortality was so high, or maybe because the mother's body was so acclimated to drinking?

Thank you for your help in advance, Historians!