Is /r/onetruegod correct in "National Treasure: Book of Secrets" when he says that before the Civil War, the United States was referred to in the plural rather than the singular as it is now? Any significant primary sources that show the truth one way or the other?
This is one of the textbook examples of a place where Big Data can help pinpoint the specific moment in which things changed — Google Ngrams of "The United States are" vs. "The United States is". (And by "textbook example," I mean, "one of the three examples the Google Ngrams people use to prove that their approach might be useful to the humanities, and the one that doesn't just produce a no-duh shrug [like their example where they show that indeed, when the Nazis banned various artists, the frequency of their name-use in German decreased].")
It supports the claim from the Supreme Court article, though only takes about 1 second to run. [If you want to see it as relative percentages, you can do that too.](https://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=The+United+States+are%2F(The+United+States+are%2BThe+United+States+is)%2C+The+United+States+is%2F(The+United+States+are%2BThe+United+States+is)&year_start=1800&year_end=2000&corpus=15&smoothing=3&share=&direct_url=t1%3B%2C%28The%20United%20States%20are%20/%20%28The%20United%20States%20are%20%2B%20The%20United%20States%20is%29%29%3B%2Cc0%3B.t1%3B%2C%28The%20United%20States%20is%20/%20%28The%20United%20States%20are%20%2B%20The%20United%20States%20is%29%29%3B%2Cc0) In 1880, both were used with equal frequency in printed English. ([It shifts back to 1875 if you use American English only, interestingly.](https://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=The+United+States+are%2F(The+United+States+are%2BThe+United+States+is)%2CThe+United+States+is%2F(The+United+States+are%2BThe+United+States+is)&year_start=1800&year_end=2000&corpus=5&smoothing=3&share=&direct_url=t1%3B%2C%28The%20United%20States%20are%20/%20%28The%20United%20States%20are%20%2B%20The%20United%20States%20is%29%29%3B%2Cc0%3B.t1%3B%2C%28The%20United%20States%20is%20/%20%28The%20United%20States%20are%20%2B%20The%20United%20States%20is%29%29%3B%2Cc0) [British English has very choppy patterns which look to me like the indications of a small sample size](https://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=The+United+States+are%2F(The+United+States+are%2BThe+United+States+is)%2CThe+United+States+is%2F(The+United+States+are%2BThe+United+States+is)&year_start=1800&year_end=2000&corpus=6&smoothing=3&share=&direct_url=t1%3B%2C%28The%20United%20States%20are%20/%20%28The%20United%20States%20are%20%2B%20The%20United%20States%20is%29%29%3B%2Cc0%3B.t1%3B%2C%28The%20United%20States%20is%20/%20%28The%20United%20States%20are%20%2B%20The%20United%20States%20is%29%29%3B%2Cc0).)
Obviously one should take such data with a grain of salt — it requires good OCRing, good metadata, and careful choosing of proper search query (I used the capital "The" because it seemed less likely to produce problems than a lower-case, e.g. "The bison of the United States are..." — and [indeed, if you use the lower-case, you get a graph skewed to the plural](https://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=the+United+States+are%2F(the+United+States+are%2Bthe+United+States+is)%2Cthe+United+States+is%2F(the+United+States+are%2Bthe+United+States+is)&year_start=1800&year_end=2000&corpus=5&smoothing=3&share=&direct_url=t1%3B%2C%28the%20United%20States%20are%20/%20%28the%20United%20States%20are%20%2B%20the%20United%20States%20is%29%29%3B%2Cc0%3B.t1%3B%2C%28the%20United%20States%20is%20/%20%28the%20United%20States%20are%20%2B%20the%20United%20States%20is%29%29%3B%2Cc0)).
While it doesn't change overnight, the trends shown do indicate a fairly rapid change from a period when the plural was more common (1860 and previous) to the point where the singular became most common from the (1900 and beyond).
Of course, understanding why and how this usage changed — the Big Data alone can't show us that. So hooray, historians will not be out of jobs anytime soon, computer scientists' dreams to the contrary.