Considering how fundamental this change is, it seems a bit strange for it to simply have been the result of a shift in intellectual thought, specially considering the self-evident nature of the scientific ideal.
Was anything else at play? The timing seems odd, given that this was right around the time the true power of scientific progress became evident - could that have been it?
I'm not sure if I'm missing the thrust of your question. But if you are referring to the analytic/continental divide, this occurred well after the triumph of the scientific ideal in the late 18th and 19th centuries (evident with the positives, like Comte, the emphasis on empiricism in Hume and then Kant, etc.), through the interwar with figures like Heideggar, Russell and Wittgenstein. So it doesn't seem obviously related to developments in science or scientific thought.
However, if you are looking for a discussion of the antecedents to the analytic/continental divide, you may have better luck in /r/askphilosophy, as there are a number of regulars there who specialize in the history of philosophy.