Also, would Joseph have stayed in an inn if he was in Bethlehem for a census? Wouldnt he have owned property there?
Alrighty guys, posting here as a mod note because this thread is getting out of hand. If you are posting in this thread with a discussion or a description of an inn in 1st Century Judea, please feel free to continue. If not, your comment will most probably be deleted.
Thanks!
There was an unacceptable answer here, earlier, stating a discrepancy between 'inn', and 'cave' between some of the parts of the NT.
Does the word 'cave' have a similar range of translations as 'inn', with the 'contradiction' merely a function of the drifting use of language both in time, and space, in the 1st c.?