How come the French army was so technologically inferior to Germany's that they were completely defeated in just a week? Even China did better against the Japanese's technologically superior army and was still abe to fight back.
Well you're coming in with a bunch of misconceptions. The French were not necessarily 'technologically inferior' to the Germans but in fact had more numerically and more technologically advanced artillery along with slightly outnumbering German tanks which were arguably better technologically as well. The issue came not with the technological discrepancy but the fact they were so late to rearmament and moreso how they used them and who used them (ie: poor leadership). Combine this with a lack of any manpower because their population was hit far harder than Germany's in the First World War and we get, as explained in the post below, a France who was not only outnumbered by Germany nearly 2:1 without British support but one who had to fill its ranks with Type A and Type B reservists just to make due; in other words, washouts.
Second the capitulation of France took over a month -- still short and shocking but not quite a week.
This is, without a doubt, the absolute most comprehensive look as to why France collapsed in the war. It covers the German plans, the Allied plans, the state of the two armies and their strengths & weaknesses along with their doctrine, and the issues of leadership. I'd highly recommend starting here as it covers just about everything you would ever need to know.
In combination to what /u/elos_ said, please look at our FAQ about the trope of French surrender monkeys and how it often points to their surrender in WW2.