Confessions in Ancient Rome and Greece only allowed under Torture?

by Thistleknot

Did Rome and Greece only accept confession under torture?

I read that Greece only allowed confession of slaves under torture (Encyclopedia of the Ancient Greek World), watching Rome I just saw Attica say the same thing.

What I don't get is why wouldn't confession be allowed outside of torture?

I like to ask, because of all this current US condoned torture, and torture never gets anywhere... What changed? Not that I condone torture. I just see ancient societies did use to use it.

QuintusSertorius

Slaves were seen as inherently unreliable. It was believed that they would willingly perjure themselves simply on a whim. Kind of a "they wouldn't know the truth unless it was forced on them." A famous Roman woman whose name escapes me at the moment (she was a major theme in Cicero's ad Milo trip but I'm on my phone so I can't look it upl) actually freed her slaves possibly to save them from this fate if they were "subpoenaed", this was the late Republic but clearly it wasn't seen as a universally accepted practice.

Source: Professor Garland's "Great Courses" lecture on "The Other Side of Ancient Life" for the first, my spotty memory for the Cicero speech, which I will try to back up when I get back to a computer