What proportion of Europe (and beyond) could the Third Reich have viably held as an occupying force, based on what we know about their manpower and resources? Where collaborators and client-states vital, or could Germany have held a conquered Europe directly?

by [deleted]

AnOldHope

Sorry, but your submission has been removed because we don't allow hypothetical questions. If possible, please feel free to rephrase the question so that it does not call for such speculation, and resubmit Otherwise, this sort of thing is better suited for /r/historicalwhatif.