You might do better to ask in an anthropology sub, since hunter-gatherers still exist.

Not necessarily history, but culture plays a large determining factor in the voices the schizophrenic hears. Such as this study from Stanford that examines groups of schizophrenics from various cultures...

The striking difference was that while many of the African and Indian subjects registered predominantly positive experiences with their voices, not one American did. Rather, the U.S. subjects were more likely to report experiences as violent and hateful – and evidence of a sick condition.

Source: Research article from Stanford News

It appears that other cultures view the voices are more positive, playful even. More importantly, the "distress" and "disease" state of the voices seems to be unique to the American (or Western) schizophrenics unlike the Africans and Indians.

Perhaps this could give some insight into how schizophrenics viewed the voices, or what the voices told them, in more collective cultures, such as hunter gatherers.

Why the difference? Luhrmann offered an explanation: Europeans and Americans tend to see themselves as individuals motivated by a sense of self identity, whereas outside the West, people imagine the mind and self interwoven with others and defined through relationships.

This meta study from the Schizophrenia Bulletin journal also seems to indicate that culture plays a large part in shaping the voices schizophrenics hear:

[The research] suggests that culture does indeed have a significant impact on the experience, understanding, and labeling of hallucinations...

Particularly, this paper mentions that "hallucinations" are largely determined by what is true or possible given their world view. Meaning that hunter gatherers who believed in supernatural deities or spirits might not even ascribe the voices to a disease state, but rather to the supernatural.

Although there are many definitions used in the academic literature, many describe hallucinations as “false” perceptions. This definition can seem to depend on a specific understanding of reality alien to most humans, who accept some degree of supernatural reality.

Perhaps, and this is just me speculating, schizophrenics of these ancient groups might be seen as magical for having some connection to the gods (being able to hear them and such). In fact...

In 62% of the cultures studied, hallucinations played a role in ordinary ritual practices.

Seems to indicate this is quite possible in early human groups.

I'm not a historian, I'm a psychology researcher. I hope this comment lives up to the proof (citation of sources) needed for this sub and is relevant enough.

I have removed this question for two reasons; one, the shitty posts that were coming in. =( I am sorry you attracted such poor answers. And two: that the question is historically unanswerable! Although a cool question, one of the points of difference between historians and anthro/archaeologists is that historians work within the so-called "written record" - not necessarily discounting sources that aren't written, but staying within the field of human narratives and political/social interactions. Does that... make sense? It's not a hard-and-fast distinction, but in this case it is an important one.

So this would be the coolest possible question for /r/AskAnthropology, but it's a little difficult for here. =( I'm very sorry about that.