Why did the Americas develop technologically much less than other non-European peoples per-colonization?

by jaigon

What conditions allowed the far east (e.g. Dynastic China and Japan), India and the Arabic countries to develop and not the Americas? I assumed that both ends of the world would develop at much the same rate, yet the Americas stayed primarily a nomadic society with tools much cruder than the EurAsia counterpart.

hatari_bwana
OldWorldGlory

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