Why did Bismarck need Alsace-Lorraine?

by Bluegutsoup

If Germany was able to be formed without Austria, why did he need to challenge France for a comparably small amount of territory? Was it the act of being able to defeat a greater power, or something else?

ParkSungJun

At the time of the Franco-Prussian war, "Germany" was still really in two pieces: the North German Federation under Prussian hegemony, and the various smaller Southern German duchies and kingdoms, like Baden, Wurttemburg, and Bavaria. Bismarck wanted to unite the NGF with these southern Germans, and he decided an easy way to do it was via nationalism. By some clever diplomatic ploys, he was able to make it seem that the French were attacking the Germans, angering German nationalists in the southern territories who rallied around Prussia, contributing large amounts of troops in the course of the war. The ensuing victory greatly strengthened Prussia's influence in South Germany, allowing Bismarck to formally federalize Germany after the French capitulation.