Why didn't Palestine get recognist in 1948, while Israle did ?

by LordOf-
LordOf-

Sorry about my english BTW

QuickSpore

It was a result of the 1948 war. What became Israel was the territory that the Israeli forces occupied. What became the Gaza Strip was the area the Egyptian army occupied, and it was annexed by Egypt. What became the West Bank was the area the Jordanian army occupied, and it was annexed by Jordan.

So there was no separate even vaguely independent area to recognize as Palestinian territory. Nor was there anything even vaguely similar to a Palestinian government. The Egyptian and Jordanian occupations were not widely recognized as legitimate. But until a peace could be negotiated, the facts on the ground were what they were. From a practical standpoint the world functionally acquiesced to the Egyptian and Jordanian annexations.

CyclopsRock

Well the premise of the question is not really accurate - what we consider "Palestine" now were bits of other countries back then. As such, there wasn't anything to recognise really. The formation of what's now considered Palestine occured in the following decades as a result of warfare and invasion.

CopperRoyce

i mean the Israelis pretty much pushed Britain out with a wave of terrorist activity (who then tried to remain neutral to keep on the Arabs good side and didn't enforce peacekeeping roles the UN tried to force on it) and the Jewish forces decisively won the civil war in 48. Essentially an Arab state in Palestine was never a historic reality in 48