A lot of peoples' names for themselves seem to translate to things like "men" or "people." Historically, would that imply they didn't consider other groups to be true men or people?

by NotGuiltyOfThat
keyilan

I see it's been a couple weeks without a proper response. You may also want to try asking this at /r/AskAnthropology. Someone there might be able to at least provide you an answer that doesn't require adhering to the 20 year rule.

Personally I think it's an interesting question. Good luck with an answer.