Why was there so much rape and pillaging in ancient times?

by [deleted]

I feel like the average person these days would never consider actually rapping someone, even with no consequence I couldn't imagine doing that. Is that through education or something with our brains?

AshkenazeeYankee

As other commenters have said:

  1. Rape as in forcibly coerced sexual acts is still fairly common in war time. Wartime rape is by no means something confined to the past.

  2. The word "rape" originally had a meaning closer to "steal" and then aquired the meaning "kidnapping for sex" (by anaology with stealing". It's current meaning of "sexual assult" first appears in the 1400s, but doesn't become the primary usage until the 19th or 20th century, at which point the older meaning of "steal" was totally eclipsed. So the older phrase "loot, rape, and pillage" was a poetic way of saying "steal, steal, and steal some more".

  3. Sexual violence has been a part of pretty much every human society since time immemorial. It's just social attitudes toward it's acceptability and treatment of victims that has changed. Sorry, that's the ugly truth.

  4. As much of it grates on our modern sensebilities, rape in wartime should probably be viewed as an aspect of "mistreatment of civilians" rather than akin to ordinary sexual assault, which occurs under rather different social circumstances.

JohnDoeSnow

1.Very broad question

  1. Don't underestimate how often rape happens in modem war. Look at World War 2 or Vietnam.

  2. When people say "rape and pillage", originally rape meant "take". It refers to rampant stealing.

The amount of rape and pillage there would be depends on the circumstances of the war and cultures invoked, not terribly different then now. Mongols were infamous for raping (in both ways) and pillaging, but there was a lack of both in Roman civil wars for example