Question Regarding the First, the Second, ... , of Rulers in the Monarchies of the British Isles | AskHistorians Archive Observer

Question Regarding the First, the Second, ... , of Rulers in the Monarchies of the British Isles

by Death_the_King

I was reading a book, and saw that James the Wisest Fool in Christendom was known as James I (King of England), and yet James VI (King of Scotland).

How did that happen? Shouldn't he actually be the Sixth (or First) of his house?

thebeef24

It's really very simple. James was king of both countries at once, but the kingdoms were still separate from each other. He was the 6th James to rule Scotland, but the first James to rule England. The regnal number is based off the title, not the dynasty or lineage.