First, my question might be misleading and if it is, I apologize. Secondly, I'm no historian. In fact, I really don't like history. I'm a ninth grader, so if I have any silly questions..bare with me. Recently I've been studying about the renaissance period, or more specifically, the reformation movement and I've been noticing a lot of similarities between it and LaVeyan Satanism(This is not traditional satanism. It is an atheistic philosophy that asserts that "each individual is his or her own god [and that] there is no room for any other god".). Now, sure LaVeyan Satanism might have not existed as LaVeyan Satanism at that time, but could something like that have existed? I mean with the church getting corrupted and people unhappy with it's power, including the rulers, people started worshipping themselves. In fact much importance was given to man himself rather than spirituality. The term Satanism dates back around the 15th century right around the renaissance and/or reformation. Is there any proof or some shred of evidence of this or is this just some weird coincidence?
It seems to me you've seen some superficial similarities and then projected backwards.
The renaissance is a complex period, with lots of different things going on. I think you may be merging different It's common to view the renaissance as a period in which humanism gained ground. As you've roughly characterised it, this is a way of thinking that puts man at the centre. However it's not "worshipping man." It's possible to see man's faculties of reason as a divine gift that should be used. You only need to look at much of the greatest art of the period - the sistine chapel, the last supper... - to see that religion is still vital. But it's religion with a more human face.
What you could call the Italian face of the renaissance grew alongside - maybe was even nurtured by - the corruption of the church. That corruption was nothing particularly new, of course. The reformation is a rather different phenomenon. It did place more emphasis on the individual, but it was the individual's relationship with god and the Bible. Martin Luther would spin in his grave if he thought you were suggesting he inspired people to start worshipping themselves.
If anything the reformation runs counter to the more humanist impulses in Catholicism. In its corruption, confessions and indulgences, Catholicism gave more leeway for individuals to do what they wanted - especially if they were rich.Protestantism could be a religion of strict social and religious conformity. We still use the term "catholic taste" to mean varied, an implicit comparison to dull, conformist protestant taste.
Various aspects of renaissance thought may share similarities with LaVeyan Satanism, but I don't see anything that is particularly distinctive. The tensions between individualism and conformity, rationalism and faith, doctrine and free thinking show up across history.
Finally, there's a key logical flaw in your argument - cause and effect. Even if we found good connections between renaissance thought and LaVeyan Satanism, doesn't it make more sense simply to say that LaVey drew on renaissance thought?
I don't think the claim could be made that people of that time and place were worshiping themselves at all. Do you have any sources to back that up?